I was listening to a dnb track by fre4knc, a new free one he's just put up, and am left wondering about the relationship between what seems like pitch bent mids range bass and a non pitch bent tonal sub.
Am I right in this analysis: https://soundcloud.com/fre4knc/fre4knc-the-time-has-come-free-download
I have usually assumed you'd pitch bend the sub in the same movement as the mids, but doesn't seem to be the case here. I may be miss interpreting the mid range part and it may not be a pitch bent sound and instead cutoff mod with distortion that makes it seem pitch bend due to the frequency sweeps. I'm not sure. If anyone's got any better insights, I'm all ears.
So the question is... Does it matter if the mid range wiggles are pitching outside the tonal center of the sub, while the sub maintains a constant pitch? Or is it best practice to have the sub move with the pitch bend mids?
Is it a taste thing? Sometimes when I've tried to resample and manipulate mids along with sub, the sub just turns to gack... so maybe the way to get cleaner more consistent results is to chop the sub out before any mental pitch mod, and then layer a tonal sub underneath and use the mids just for interesting fx movements, as opposed to tonal reinforcement.
It's weird I thought they always had to be connected, does anyone else treat bass/midBass as two separate instruments?